If a person knew no languages...

Would they be able to think? and how would they?

I have always wondered about this. I'm baffled

That question is a little vague, why do they know no languages? But there is Helen Keller. Became blind and def at 19 months old. She learned to communicate despite her disabilities and became a famous writer, lecturer and advocate.

Did she write about her thoughts before she was able to communicate?

You would have to think in Images and shapes I would assume and most likely begin to form your own thoughts on those images..

though children are dependent on their mothers to survive .. so it would be hard to have an individual who has no sort of teaching.. I would think they would begin to create some sort of way to communicate.

I don't know, she was 1 and a half years old. You can check out her story though, it interesting. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Helen_Keller

Well can't you answer your question simply by watching how chimpanzees and other monkeys interact ?

Ali* wrote:

Well can't you answer your question simply by watching how chimpanzees and other monkeys interact ?

Nope, animals have their own languages.

GDPofDRC wrote:

I don't know, she was 1 and a half years old. You can check out her story though, it interesting. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Helen_Keller

Cool, thanks.

Of course they would be able to think. If animals, such as primates who don't have any kind of vocal language that doesn't directly emphasize body language, can have "moods" then obviously cognitive thought is possible to a degree. What kind of degree is the question, but language is not a barrier on thought itself, merely in the expression of it.

what a daft question. at one point in time, prehistoric man would not have had any established language and at some point thereafter, thought to develop methods of communication.

unless of course you believe that god created all living things and invented the mark II human with improved linguistic skills at a later date......... replacing the mark I version would be an admission of fallability though so that can't be right.

cheekynffc wrote:

what a daft question. at one point in time, prehistoric man would not have had any established language and at some point thereafter, thought to develop methods of communication.

unless of course you believe that god created all living things and invented the mark II human with improved linguistic skills at a later date......... replacing the mark I version would be an admission of fallability though so that can't be right.

Adam and Eve spoke a language